The future of Robert Lewandowski continues to be a hot topic in transfer rumors. The experienced striker may soon end his chapter at Barcelona. Without a contract extension, he could become a free agent this summer.
The Polish forward revealed in a media interview that he has not yet made a decision regarding the next stage of his career. At 37, he emphasized the importance of carefully evaluating all his options.
“I haven’t decided what I’ll do yet. I need to think it through. I’m not even 50 percent certain about which path I’ll take,” Lewandowski said, as quoted by Calciomercato.
One of the proposed destinations discussed in media reports is a move to Serie A. Both Juventus and AC Milan reportedly have their sights set on the prolific forward.
In Turin, Lewandowski’s potential transfer has the endorsement of club legend David Trezeguet. The former Juventus striker believes that even at 37, Lewandowski retains the ability to be a game-changer upfront.
“I would sign Lewandowski even today. He remains one of the last true number nines in the world,” stated the former French international.
Milan is also exploring the possibility, though completing such a move could prove challenging due to the player’s substantial salary. Lewandowski reportedly earns around 13 million euros net annually at Barcelona.
A move to the United States also remains on the table, as it cannot be ruled out entirely.
The Chicago Fire from MLS has shown significant interest in the Polish player, with representatives from the club reportedly already meeting with the footballer and his agent.